本试卷满分共120分 考试时间100分钟
笔试（共三部分120分）
第一部分 知识运用（共两节，45分）
第一节语法填空（共10小题;每小题1.5分，共15分）
阅读下列短文，根据短文内容填空。在未给提示词的空白处仅填写1个适当的单词，在给出提示词的空白处用括号内所给词的正确形式填空。
A
At 9 feet tall and weighing about 250 pounds, the ostrich （鸵鸟） is the world’s largest bird. As the myth goes, a frightened ostrich will bury its head in the sand__1__（make） itself invisible to its hunters. If that sounds like a “bird-brained” way to escape danger, you’re right！ Actually, the ostrich plays dead in this way. When this behavior__2__（see） from a distance, the ostrich’s head might not be visible,__3__（give） the false impression that its head is buried.
B
I picked up the phone, slowly dialing the number to her house. All I could think was __4__we could possibly have a conversation about. Nothing！I didn’t think I could have anything in common with the person__5____is 50 years older than me. Your grandmother won’t be around forever,” my mom said，so I just did what she told me and called my grandmother. What I didn’t know was that the phone call __6__（change） my attitude to life.
C
Ten years ago, people bought electric vehicles （EVs） to reduce their carbon footprint. __7__the limited range and high price made EVs something of a rare sight on roads. A lot can change in a decade. Advances in battery technology __8____（mean） electric cars now travel much further on a single charge. Government grants （补贴） serve to draw buyers away from gasoline-powered cars. The change will have a huge impact____9__ life. Roads will become far__10__（quiet） and pollution levels will be reduced quickly, potentially leading to improved quality of life.
第二节 完形填空（共20小题;每小题1.5分，共30分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
The small town of Allen Crossing, Indiana, has been the place I’ve called home for all 16 years of my life. That’s where I spend hours just __11__. Looking at how the wind blows the wild flowers to create a magical__12__of color. Looking at the way insects move hurriedly among plants. The beauty of nature has always been what __13____ me to create art. I used to think that artists get inspiration from__14__. Then I went to New York and something happened that really made me__15______ that idea.
I was offered two-week courses at an art college there. When I took the train to the college for the first time, I had some serious__16__about whether I had made the right choice about coming. I was so used to the__17__countryside. New York, however, was noisy and __18__. People pushed past me to squeeze through the doors of the subway cars. Everything moved at such a __19__pace that I felt I had no time to process it all.
Art classes were another story.___20__I started making art, I felt like myself again. Working from memory, I made a series of drawings of natural scenes. Your images are very __21__and accurate，”one teacher told me. Why not try using brighter colors and bolder shapes and motions？” I followed her advice and was amazed at the__22__.
One day my cousin Ken came to see my drawings. Gosh！ These are great！They remind me of graffiti （涂鸦）.” Hе exclaimed.
I looked at my drawings and was __23__. To me graffiti was not art, it was__24__messy, unreadable writing on walls.
Cool,” Ken continued. If you’re into art, you should come with me. I followed him to a huge factory that was completely __25____ with graffiti. The walls were covered with bright colors, portraits, words and calligraphy-like symbols. What I saw was art not unlike what I had been making. The big __26____ was that the artists drew images from city life, such as crowded subway trains and tall，shiny buildings. In every sketch, there was a（n）__27______ that reminded me of that first subway ride, only it was a creative one.
Now I know that __28__is different for everyone. What drives one person crazy can be the thing that drives another person to __29__. I may not look at the city the way street artists do, but they may not see nature the way I do. I__30____ the way the city’s energy inspires them. And now I use that energy wherever I am to create my own art.
11. A. thinking B. reading C. looking D. working
12. A. note B. moment C. power D. carpet
13. A. leads B. drives C. forces D. requires
14. A. beauty B. scenery C. nature D. imagination
15. A. regret B. develop C. share D. rethink
16. A. doubts B. problems C. trouble D. consideration
17. A. remote B. quiet C. colorful D. open
18. A. unsafe B. tough C. dull D. crowded
19. A. steady B. rapid C. natural D. leisure
20. A. Although B. Because C. Once D. Unless
21. A. realistic B. unique C. clear D. abstract
22. A. attempt B. choice C. passion D. change
23. A. shocked B. convinced C. confused D. amused
24. A. just B. still C. even D. yet
25. A. coated B. decorated C. engaged D. marked
26. A. advantage B. attraction C. priority D. difference
27. A. clue B. energy C. style D. element
28. A. destination B. ambition C. inspiration D. determination
29. A. create B. discover C. progress D. concern
30. A. explore B. respect C. understand D. follow
第二部分 阅读理解 （共两节，40分）
第一节（共15小题;每小题2分，共30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡，上将该项涂黑。
A
AQUILA Children’s Magazine is the most intelligent read for curious kids. Full of enthusiastic articles and challenging puzzles, every issue covers science, history and general knowledge. AQUILA is a quality production, beautifully illustrated with contemporary artwork throughout.
●·Intelligent reading for 8-12 year-olds
●·Cool science and challenging projects
●·Inspires self-motivated learning
●·Exciting new topic every issue
AQUILA is created and owned by an independent UK company. It has 28 pages, printed on high-quality paper and there are no advertisements or posters. Instead it is full of well-written articles, thought-provoking ideas and great contemporary artwork. Each monthly issue is centred around a new topic.
AQUILA works as a superb learning extension to current primary （or KS2 and KS3） curriculum （课程）, but it is much more than that！ Entertaining and always surprising, AQUILA is recommended because it widens children’s interest and understanding, rather than encouraging them to concentrate only on their favourite subjects. It gives children a well-rounded understanding of the world, in all its complexity.
The concepts in AQUILA can be challenging, requiring good comprehension and reading skills. 8 years is usually a good age to start. Some gentle interest from an adult is often helpful at the start.
In 2020 AQUILA will have been in publication for 28 years, but it has never appeared in newsstands or shops. We are subscription only.
AQUILA Subscription
UK: 12 Months £ – 4 Months £30
Europe: 12 Months £60 – 4 Months £35
World: 12 Months £70 – 4 Months £35
Birthdays
Select the Birthday option, write a gift message and choose the birthday month. We will dispatch to arrive at the start of the month you have entered. The package posts in a blue envelope marked ‘Open on your birthday’.
31. What is special about AQUILA？
A. It is available in shops.
B. It is for kids of all ages.
C. It has no advertisements.
D. It prints readers’ artworks.
32. What does AQUILA offer its readers？
A. Articles on modern art.
B. Family reading materials.
C. Ideas on improving reading skills.
D. Knowledge beyond school subjects.
33. AQUILA is intended for
A. foreign language learners
B. children with learning difficulties
C. parent-child reading lovers
D. curious kids with good comprehension
B
The spot of red was what first caught Randy Heiss’s attention on December 16, 2018. He walked toward it and found a balloon attached to a piece of paper. “Dayami,” it read on one side, in a child’s writing. Heiss flipped the paper over. It was a numbered list in Spanish. His Spanish isn’t very good, but he could see it was a Christmas list.
Hе was charmed and wondered whether he could find the child. About 20miles to the southwest, just across the border, was the city of Nogales, Mexico. Based on the prevailing wind, he was pretty sure that’s where it came from.
Back home, Heiss’s wife who is fluent in Spanish translated the list. Dayami, probably a girl, had asked for a doll, a dollhouse, clothes and art supplies.
Heiss then posted about his quest on Facebook, attaching photos, hoping someone might know the girl’s family.
A few days passed with no leads; Heiss worried that time was running out before Christmas. On December 19, he decided to send a private Facebook message to Radio XENY based in Nogales. The next morning, Heiss awoke to a message: The staff had located Dayami, who indeed lived in Nogales and would be willing to arrange a get-together at the radio station.
Heiss and his wife rushed to buy everything on Dayami’s list. Then they drove for 45 minutes, crossing the border into Nogales. They finally met the very excited girl. “Her eyes were wide open with wonder. Like, ‘Oh my gosh, this really did work！’ It was a beautiful experience，” Heiss said. Quite healing for us.”
Heiss, 61, has lived in Bisbee, Arizona for more than three decades. Ten years ago, he and his wife lost their only child. They have no grandchildren. Now they split their time between Nogales and Bisbee.
Being around children at Christmastime has been absent in our lives，” Heiss said. “It’s been kind of a gaping hole in our Christmas experience.” Hе has since reflected on what a miracle it was that he spotted the balloon at all, let alone that he was able to locate Dayami and her family.
34. On December 16, Heiss _______.
A. planned to go to Nogales
B. found a wish list by accident
C. spotted a card attached to a balloon
D. read a story about Dayami on Facebook
35. What did Heiss do to find Dayami？
A. He asked his wife for advice.
B. He posted Dayami’s photo online.
C. He drove to Nogales to find clues.
D. He turned to Radio XENY for help.
36. What do we learn about Heiss？
A. He has lived alone for many years.
B. He is not good at learning languages.
C. He has built a close bond with Dayami.
D. He buys Dayami gifts every Christmas.
37. What does the story intend to tell us？
A. Giving is rewarding.
B. All for one, one for all.
C. Actions speak louder than words.
D. Treat others as you hope they will treat you.
C
In industry and medicine, robots routinely build, break down and inspect things; they also assist in surgery and pharmacies. Neither they nor “social” robots-which are designed to engage with people and to establish an emotional connection-behave like The Jetsons’ maid, Rosie, or other beloved robots of fiction. Even so, expect social robots to become more complicated and popular in the next few years.
Like most robots, social robots use artificial intelligence （AI） to decide how to act on information received through cameras and other sensors. The ability to respond in ways that seem lifelike has been informed by research into such issues as how perceptions （认知） form, what constitutes social and emotional intelligence，and how people understand others thoughts and feelings. Advances in AI have enabled designers to translate such psychological and neuroscientific （神经学的）insights into algorithms （演算） that allow robots to recognize voices, faces and emotions; interpret speech and gestures; respond appropriately to complex verbal and nonverbal cues; make еуе contact; speak conversationally; and adapt to people’s needs by learning from feedback, rewards and criticisms.
In consequence, social robots are filling an ever expanding variety of roles. A47-inch humanoid called Pepper （from SoftBank Robotics）, for instance，recognizes faces and basic human emotions and engages in conversations via a touch screen in its “chest.” About 15,000 Peppers worldwide perform such services as hotel check-ins, airport customer service, shopping assistance and fast-food checkout. Social robots have particular appeal for assting the world’s growing elderly population. Japan’s PARO Therapeutic （治疗的） Robot, which looks like a lovely seal （海豹 ）, is meant to stimulate and reduce stress for those with Alzheimer’s disease and other patients. Mabu （Catalia Health） engages patients, particularly the elderly, reminding them to take walks and medication. Social robots are also gaining popularity with consumers as toys. Early attempts to incorporate social behavior in toys, such as Hasbro’s Baby Alive and Sony’s AIBO robotic dog, had limited success. But both are resurging, and the most recent version of AIBO has complicated voice and gesture recognition, can be taught tricks and develops new behaviors based on previous interactions.
Worldwide sales of consumer robots reached an estimated $5.6 billion in 2018, and the market is expected to grow to $19 billion by the end of 2025. This trend may seem surprising given that multiple well-funded consumer robot companies, such as Jibo and Anki, have failed. But a wave of robots is lining up to take the place of defunct robots, including BUDDY （Blue Frog Robotics）, a big-eyed mobile device that plays games in addition to acting as a personal assistant and providing home automation and security.
38. Paragraph 2 mainly tells us _______.
A. what the features of social robots are
B. what promotes social robots’ engagement with people
C. how algorithms are improved to adapt to people’ ‘s needs
D. how psychological and neuroscientific insights are translated
39. According to Paragraph 3, social robots_______.
A. have a wide range of applications
B. have the ability to deal with emergencies
C. have a tendency to take the place of humans
D. have successfully gained psychological insight
40. What can we learn from the passage？
A. Social robots are designed as personal assistants.
B. Robots in industry and medicine need improvement.
C. Consumer robots have been successful all these years.
D. Social robots are popular due to great interactive abilities.
41. What is the purpose of the passage？
A. To predict the prospect of social robots.
B. To introduce the advances of social robots.
C. To report the application of AI in social robots.
D. To show the influence of social robots on our life.
D
If you think about it, work-life balance is a strange ambition for a fulfilling life. Balance is about stasis: if our lives were ever in balance-parents happy, kids taken care of, work working-then our overriding thought would be to shout “Nobody move！” and pray all would stay perfect forever. This false hope is made worse by the categories themselves. They imply that work is bad, and life is good. And so the challenge, we are told, is to balance the heaviness of work with the lightness of life.
Yet work is not the opposite of life. It is instead a part of life-just as family is, as are friends and community. All of these aspects of living have their share of uplifting moments and moments that drag us down. The same is true of work. Treat work the same way you do life: by maximizing what you love.
We have interviewed several anesthesiologists （麻醉师 ） about the thrills they feel in their jobs. One said he loved the thrill of holding each patient hovering at that one precise point between life and death. Another said she loved the bedside conversations before the operation aiming to calm the panic that affects many patients. Another was drawn mostly to the anesthetic mechanism and has devoted himself to defining precisely how each drug does what it does.
Think of your life’s many different activities as threads. Some are black and some are white. But some of these activities appear to be made of a different substance. These activities contain all the tell-tale signs of love: before you do them, you find yourself looking forward to them; while you’re doing them, time speeds up and you find yourself in flow; and after you’ve done them, you feel energetic. These are your red threads, and research by the Mауo Clinic suggests that doctors who weave the fabric of their life with at least 20% red threads are significantly less likely to experience burnout.
The simplest way for you to do this is to spend a week in love with your job. During the week, any time you find yourself feeling one of the signs of love write down exactly what you were doing in the column “Love.” And any time you find yourself feeling the inverse write down what you were doing in the column “Loathe”. By the end of the week you will see a list of activities in your “Love” column, which create in you a positive feeling, one that draws you in and lifts you up.
Our goal should be to, little by little, week by week, intentionally unbalance all aspects of our work toward the former and away from the latter. Not simply to make us feel better, but so that our colleagues, our friends and our family can all benefit from us at our very best.
42. What is the author’s attitude towards work-life balance？
A. Doubtful.
B. Disapproving.
C. Supportive.
D. Neutral.
43. The author uses three anesthesiologists as examples to________.
A. prove people benefit from work
B. indicate doctors take pride in their work
C. show people gain joy from different situations
D. imply doctors reduce the pressure of work successfully
44. “Red threads” in Paragraph 4 refer to the activities that________.
A. arouse your passion
B. satisfy your desires
C. improve your motivation
D. require your efforts
45. Which of the following does the author probably agree with？
A. Red threads are necessary for a balanced life.
B. Recording activities helps create positive feeling.
C. Find love in work instead of keeping work-life balance.
D. Maximize what you love to remove the heaviness from work.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的七个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。（选项中有两项为多余选项）
For serious birders who regularly，observe birds in the wild, ignoring climate change isn’t possible. We have been seeing and documenting the effects of a warming climate since at least the 1950s.
__46__Glossy black great-tailed grackles （美洲黑羽椋鸟）, for example, previously found primarily in the tropics （热带）, first reached southeastern California in 1964. They are now found throughout most of the state.
New research from the National Audubon Society highlights the dangers of the trend. For its new report, “Survival by Degrees，” Audubon scientists analyzed the current geographic ranges of 604 North American bird species, and modeled how those ranges would change at different levels of warming. At a global temperature rise of three degrees Celsius, they found that 389 of those species-or nearly two-thirds of those studied-would become endangered, losing much of their current habitat.__47__
Why does this matter to anyone who’s not a bird watcher? For one thing, birds play a crucial role in the ecology, keeping down insect populations and serving as food themselves for larger predators (食肉动物). __48__ Their shifting ranges warn of increasing droughts, floods, fires, rising seas and unlivable cities.
__49__Audubon scientists modeled what would happen at lesser levels of warming, and the results are striking. Limiting warming to 1.5 degrees would reduce the danger for three-quarters of those threatened birds. Audubon’s report “Survival by Degrees” is not a depressing forecast but rather a call to action. It stresses the need for action at every level, by individuals and governments alike, to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
As a lifelong birder, I’m proud of the role my tribe has played in documenting the effects of climate change. When local conditions change, particular types of frogs or wildflowers may decrease and disappear, few will notice.__50__I hope people can pay close attention to the urgent message in this new report and work together for solutions. Birds tell us we don’t have time to wait.
A. We still have time to do something about it, however.
B. But they also serve as a visible symbol of broader environmental shifts.
C. This would greatly benefit humans, reducing the potential suffering for people.
D. But when a bird species disappears, we dedicated birders document the change.
E. In recent decades, that has meant a consistent northward shift in where species are found.
F. The changes will make birding exciting, with birders finding new species in unexpected places.
G. Even if some could shift their range northward, they would soon start to run out of room on the map.
第三部分 书面表达 （共两节，35分）
第一节（15分）
假设你是红星中学高三学生李华。你的英国好友Jim发来邮件询问你近期在家通过网络学习的情况。请你给他回复邮件，内容包括:
1.你每天的学习安排;
2.你的收获。
注意: 1.词数不少于50;
2.开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Jim,
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
（请务必将作文写在答题卡指定区域内）
第二节（20分）
假设你是红星中学高三学生李华。你们班上周组织了一次以”科技让生活更美好”为主题的社会实践活动。请根据以下四幅图的先后顺序，写一篇英文周记，记述参观科技公司的整个过程。
注意:词数不少于60。
提示词: 3D打印机 3D printer
（请务必将作文写在答题卡指定区域内）
参考答案
第一部分:知识运用（共两节，45分）
第一节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，共15分）
1. to make 2. is seen 3. giving 4. what 5. who/ that
6. would change/ was going to change
7. But/ Yet 8. mean 9. on 10. quieter
第二节 完形填空（共20小题;每小题1.5分，共30分）
11.C 12.D 13.B 14.C 15.D 16.A 17.B 18.D 19. B 20. C
21.A 22. D 23. C 24.A 25.A 26.D 27.B 28.C 29.A 30. B
第二部分:阅读理解（共两节，40分）
第一节（共15小题;每小题2分，共30分）
31.C 32.D 33.D 34.B 35.D 36.C 37.A 38.B 39.A 40. D
41.B 42. B 43.C 44.A 45. C
第二节（共5小题;每小题2分，共10分）
46. E 47.G 48.B 49.A 50.D
第三部分:书面表达（共两节，35分）
第一节（15分）
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为15分，按4个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定其档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.评分时应考虑:内容是否完整，逻辑是否清晰，交际是否得体，语言是否规范。
4.拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5.词数少于50, 从总分中减去1分。
二、各档次给分范围和要求
第一档 （13分~15分） | 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 ·内容完整，条理清楚; ·交际得体，表达时充分考虑到了交际的需求;体现出较强的语言运用能力。 完全达到了预期的写作目的。 |
第二档 （9分~12分） | 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 ·内容、条理和交际等方面基本符合要求; ·所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求; ·语法或用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。 基本达到了预期的写作目的。 |
第三档 （4分~8分） | 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 ·内容不完整; ·所用词汇有限，语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。 未能清楚地传达信息。 |
第四档 （1分~3分） | 未完成试题规定的任务。 ·写了少量相关信息; ·语法或用词方面错误较多，严重影响了对所写内容的理解。 |
0分 | 未传达任何信息;所写内容与要求无关。 |
三、范文
One possible version:
Dear Jim,
Thanks for your concern and I’m glad to share my experience of e-learning.
My day begins from 8 am. I have online lessons in the morning following the school schedule. Can you believe we even have indoor P.E. classes to keep fit？ In the afternoon, I read, review or preview my lessons according to my plan. In case of problems, I will ask my teachers for help or discuss with my classmates online.
Compared with classroom learning, e-learning requires self-discipline. Encouraged by my teachers and parents, I’ve become more disciplined and learned to manage time more effectively.
Yours，
Li Hua
第二节（20分）
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为20分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定其档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.评分时应考虑:内容要点的完整性、上下文的连贯性、词汇和句式的多样性及语言的准确性。
4.拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5.词数少于60，从总分中减去1分。
二、内容要点
1.听讲座
2.看演示
3.动手实践
4.欣赏作品
三、各档次给分范围和要求
第一档 （18分~20分） | 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 ·覆盖了所有内容要点; ·运用了多样的句式和丰富的词汇; ·语法或用词方面有个别错误，但为尽可能表达丰富的内容所致; 体现了较强的语言运用能力; ·有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，所写内容连贯、结构紧凑。完全达到了预期的写作目的。 |
第二档 （15分~17分） | 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 ·覆盖了所有内容要点; ·运用的句式和词汇能满足任务要求; ·语法和用词基本准确，少许错误主要为尽可能表达丰富的内容所致; ·使用了简单的语句间连接成分，所写内容连贯。 达到了预期的写作目的。 |
第三档 （12分~14分） | 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 覆盖了内容要点; ·运用的句式和词汇基本满足任务要求; ·语法和用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。 基本达到了预期的写作目的。 |
第四档 （6分~11分） | 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 ·漏掉或未描述清楚内容要点; ·所用句式和词汇有限; ·语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。 未能清楚地传达信息。 |
第五档 （1分~5分） | 未完成试题规定的任务。 ·明显遗漏内容要点; ·句式单调、词汇贫乏; ·语法或用词方面错误较多，严重影响了对所写内容的理解。 |
0分 | 未能传达任何信息;所写内容与要求无关。 |
四、范文
One possible version:
Last Friday, our class organized an activity themed “Technology makes life better”.
In the morning, we set off for a technology company. An engineer there welcomed us and gave a lecture on 3D printing, introducing its history, development and application in fields like architecture, medicine, etc. Then he showed us how the 3D printer works. We were amazed at the magic of technology and couldn’t wait to give it a try. Our group first designed a 3D model of a bike and then operated the printer, as instructed. Watching the bike gradually taking shape, we felt excited. When all our works were displayed on the table, we admired them and some took photos to record this unforgettable experience.
This is really an educative and eye-opening activity in which I was impressed with the convenience and benefits brought by technology.